Murray, I can't quite understand how this wouldn't be classed as a purchase? In the most simplistic of terms, I acquired the domain in good faith by paying for it. In general terms, I would expect a registrar to have a duty of care to their customers to act diligently using reasonable care and skill. I had legitimate interest to purchase the domain and made the relevant inquiries to do so. Let it be known, I was entirely transparent; I have my solicitors looking into this now, so I'm unsure how much I can speak on my situation per se. Rest assured, I asked all the relevant questions and clarified information on a recorded telephone call during the process, and over email, and afterwards. It's very well documented and I intend to strongly pursue legal actions as a result that's available to me.
Just to clear up some confusion, as far as I was concerned the registrar was authorised and had permission to sell the domain to me; another aspect to consider was the 6 years and 90 day period having elapsed too and the domain becoming available under some registrars terms of agreement. Subsequently, no disputes have arisen by the previous registrant on these domains either and so they shouldn't have either - they no longer have any rights to the domain to this date. From speaking with Nominet, I understand one may argue there's a breach of the contract between Nominet and the registrar (though I still would need to look into this further to understand it better). However as an end consumer is not privy to this agreement and isn't required to be, taking action effectively agains them is equally an injustice and unwarranted; especially more so, in the context of where domains have been sold on etc.